Discussion:
Polyphony before Bach
(too old to reply)
Lawrence
2006-10-15 22:19:50 UTC
Permalink
I had read years ago that Bach was the culmination of Baroque music
(along with Handel), and also that he brought polyphony to its highest
point. I had since always assumed that the two achievements were two
parts of the same thing, but now suspect I am wrong. Seeking Baroque
and polyphonic precedents for JSB, I recently listened to works by
Buxtehude and Schutz. I did not find much polyphony there. Then
recently I read somewhere on the web that the Baroque style from its
inception included a preference for homophony and away from the
polyphony of the Renaissance. So my question is, what composers'
concepts was Bach perfecting in his polyphony? Renaisance composers
such as Lassus, Palestrina and Bryd? Other composers from pre-Baroque
times? Or are there Baroque polyphonic masters, pre-JSB, whom I am
missing? Or is it correct to say that the height of polyphonic writing
is NOT synonymous with the perfection of Baroque music? If a trend
toward homophony is a Baroque characteristic, is it not more correct to
say that Bach's perfection of polyphony was reactionary and
anachronistic in the context of the whole Baroque period? Of course no
value judgment whatsoever is implied here, I am just trying to
understand Bach's environment and his actions.

In some other reading I've done, Northern polyphony of pre-Baroque
times is mentioned. Is this in the "Renaissance" period? (Of course
"Renaissance" is something of a misnomer in the north of Europe, for
visual art as well as music.) And who or what schools are relevant?

(I thank in advance any posters who answer my questions. Those who
think that I should go to a good library instead of bothering the
members here, and wish to tell me so sternly and with bad manners, I
would like to ask you to please simply not answer. I do not have an
extensive libary, such as a university library, available to me and the
Internet is limited for certain kinds of questions. Reading books on
music history and on Bach from my public library has not answered this
question for me. If you are interested in just providing some
information, I welcome it, but otherwise, your acidic replies have been
noted in the past and I wish you would please just depart this thread
if you plan to be rude, and leave the way open for other posters who I
know are capable of camaraderie - after all, we are all devotees of the
great Bach, having a discussion - and kindness. Thank you.) .
Lawrence
2006-10-15 22:25:52 UTC
Permalink
Post by Lawrence
I had read years ago that Bach was the culmination of Baroque music
(along with Handel), and also that he brought polyphony to its highest
point. I had since always assumed that the two achievements were two
parts of the same thing, but now suspect I am wrong. Seeking Baroque
and polyphonic precedents for JSB, I recently listened to works by
Buxtehude and Schutz. I did not find much polyphony there. Then
recently I read somewhere on the web that the Baroque style from its
inception included a preference for homophony and away from the
polyphony of the Renaissance. So my question is, what composers'
concepts was Bach perfecting in his polyphony? Renaisance composers
such as Lassus, Palestrina and Bryd? Other composers from pre-Baroque
times? Or are there Baroque polyphonic masters, pre-JSB, whom I am
missing? Or is it correct to say that the height of polyphonic writing
is NOT synonymous with the perfection of Baroque music? If a trend
toward homophony is a Baroque characteristic, is it not more correct to
say that Bach's perfection of polyphony was reactionary and
anachronistic in the context of the whole Baroque period? Of course no
value judgment whatsoever is implied here, I am just trying to
understand Bach's environment and his actions.
In some other reading I've done, Northern polyphony of pre-Baroque
times is mentioned. Is this in the "Renaissance" period? (Of course
"Renaissance" is something of a misnomer in the north of Europe, for
visual art as well as music.) And who or what schools are relevant?
(I thank in advance any posters who answer my questions. Those who
think that I should go to a good library instead of bothering the
members here, and wish to tell me so sternly and with bad manners, I
would like to ask you to please simply not answer. I do not have an
extensive libary, such as a university library, available to me and the
Internet is limited for certain kinds of questions. Reading books on
music history and on Bach from my public library has not answered this
question for me. If you are interested in just providing some
information, I welcome it, but otherwise, your acidic replies have been
noted in the past and I wish you would please just depart this thread
if you plan to be rude, and leave the way open for other posters who I
know are capable of camaraderie - after all, we are all devotees of the
great Bach, having a discussion - and kindness. Thank you.) .
I forgot to mention in my previous long post that I am aware of Bach's
scholarly knowledge of music even older than the Renaissance, and his
use of very antique styles in works like the B Minor Mass. These
special atypical instances are not what I am refering to; rather I'm
trying to place what may be called his typical practice in the context
of his times.
Jackson K. Eskew
2006-10-18 04:09:52 UTC
Permalink
Post by Lawrence
I had read years ago that Bach was the culmination of Baroque music
(along with Handel), and also that he brought polyphony to its highest
point. I had since always assumed that the two achievements were two
parts of the same thing, but now suspect I am wrong. Seeking Baroque
and polyphonic precedents for JSB, I recently listened to works by
Buxtehude and Schutz. I did not find much polyphony there. Then
recently I read somewhere on the web that the Baroque style from its
inception included a preference for homophony and away from the
polyphony of the Renaissance. So my question is, what composers'
concepts was Bach perfecting in his polyphony? Renaisance composers
such as Lassus, Palestrina and Bryd? Other composers from pre-Baroque
times? Or are there Baroque polyphonic masters, pre-JSB, whom I am
missing? Or is it correct to say that the height of polyphonic writing
is NOT synonymous with the perfection of Baroque music? If a trend
toward homophony is a Baroque characteristic, is it not more correct to
say that Bach's perfection of polyphony was reactionary and
anachronistic in the context of the whole Baroque period? Of course no
value judgment whatsoever is implied here, I am just trying to
understand Bach's environment and his actions.
In some other reading I've done, Northern polyphony of pre-Baroque
times is mentioned. Is this in the "Renaissance" period? (Of course
"Renaissance" is something of a misnomer in the north of Europe, for
visual art as well as music.) And who or what schools are relevant?
(I thank in advance any posters who answer my questions. Those who
think that I should go to a good library instead of bothering the
members here, and wish to tell me so sternly and with bad manners, I
would like to ask you to please simply not answer. I do not have an
extensive libary, such as a university library, available to me and the
Internet is limited for certain kinds of questions. Reading books on
music history and on Bach from my public library has not answered this
question for me. If you are interested in just providing some
information, I welcome it, but otherwise, your acidic replies have been
noted in the past and I wish you would please just depart this thread
if you plan to be rude, and leave the way open for other posters who I
know are capable of camaraderie - after all, we are all devotees of the
great Bach, having a discussion - and kindness. Thank you.) .
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