Andrew Schulman
2006-05-02 02:20:04 UTC
In a recent thread there was a discussion of why Bach so often
transposed the key of the string concertos he arranged for keyboard.
The most plausible theory ventured in the thread was that the claviers
he had available to him at the time only went up to D3, and since the
string concertos he arranged went higher he needed to transpose down a
whole step.
However, tonight I was checking through BWV 978, his arrangement for
solo keyboard of Vivaldi's op. 3, #3 (RV 310) which is in F (I play
this in G on the guitar, both as a solo piece and with my group). The
original Vivaldi score is in G. And, the highest note in the original
is D3. In other words, there was no need to transpose down a whole
step, yet he did so anyway!
In many of the works he arranged, especially his own string concertos,
there are solo parts that go higher than D, so if in fact he didn't
have keyboard instruments that went higher than D3 he indeed had to
transpose downward. But with BWV 978 there was no need to accommodate
the keyboard. So, the question remains why did he transpose anyway?
To make matters more interesting, in BWV 972, from Vivaldi's op. 3, #9
(RV 230), also with nothing higher than D3, he stays in D major, the
original key. And, in BWV 976 in C, he has transposed down, not a
whole step, but a major 3rd from the original key of E. However, the
highest note is E3; why didn't he just go a whole step lower?
Like so many things he did, we don't know from Bach himself why this
happened in this way. Frustrating, but certainly makes life more
interesting!
Andrew
transposed the key of the string concertos he arranged for keyboard.
The most plausible theory ventured in the thread was that the claviers
he had available to him at the time only went up to D3, and since the
string concertos he arranged went higher he needed to transpose down a
whole step.
However, tonight I was checking through BWV 978, his arrangement for
solo keyboard of Vivaldi's op. 3, #3 (RV 310) which is in F (I play
this in G on the guitar, both as a solo piece and with my group). The
original Vivaldi score is in G. And, the highest note in the original
is D3. In other words, there was no need to transpose down a whole
step, yet he did so anyway!
In many of the works he arranged, especially his own string concertos,
there are solo parts that go higher than D, so if in fact he didn't
have keyboard instruments that went higher than D3 he indeed had to
transpose downward. But with BWV 978 there was no need to accommodate
the keyboard. So, the question remains why did he transpose anyway?
To make matters more interesting, in BWV 972, from Vivaldi's op. 3, #9
(RV 230), also with nothing higher than D3, he stays in D major, the
original key. And, in BWV 976 in C, he has transposed down, not a
whole step, but a major 3rd from the original key of E. However, the
highest note is E3; why didn't he just go a whole step lower?
Like so many things he did, we don't know from Bach himself why this
happened in this way. Frustrating, but certainly makes life more
interesting!
Andrew